And do not argue with the People of the Scripture except in a way that is best, except for those who commit injustice among them, and say, “We believe in that which has been revealed to us and revealed to you. And our God and your God is one; and we are Muslims [in submission] to Him.” — S 29:46
This Quranic verse claims that Muslims believe what was “revealed” to the people of the book which are Jews and Christians. Yet, Muslims don’t believe what Jews and Christians believe; Muslims and Jews disagree that Jesus Christ is the Messiah (Surah 4:157). And Muslims clearly disagree with Christians that Jesus Christ is God (Revelation 1:8). Then how is this ayat correct if Muslims don’t believe what Jews and Christians believe?
The following verse tells Muslims that if they are confused or unsure of something revealed from Allah, then they are to go to those people who have been reading the scripture before them. This is referring to Jews and Christians as Allah claims he sent the Torah (the 5 books of Moses) and the Injeel (the Gospel).
So if you are in doubt, [O Muhammad], about that which We have revealed to you, then ask those who have been reading the Scripture before you. The truth has certainly come to you from your Lord, so never be among the doubters. — S 10:94
Tafsir al-Jalalayn: “So if you O Muhammad (s) are in doubt concerning what We have revealed to you of stories — hypothetically speaking — then question those who read the Scripture the Torah before you for it is confirmed therein with them and they can inform you of its truth. The Prophet s said ‘I have no doubt nor will I question’. Verily the Truth from your Lord has come to you; so do not be of the waverers of those who have doubts about it.”
If Muslims are to go to the people of the book to confirm what was given before the Quran why is it Muslims claim the Bible is corrupted? Questions then need to be asked when was the Bible “corrupted” and how, which verses are corrupted? Are they saying Allah is directing people to read from the Bible yet it’s somehow corrupted, wouldn’t that make Allah a false god?
If Muslims knew how the Bible was written and communicated throughout the world they wouldn’t bring such arguments. We have numerous parts of the New Testament manuscripts more than all other ancient historical documents. Up to 5,800 completed or fragmented Greek manuscripts, as well as 10,000 Latin manuscripts, and 9,300 others such as Syriac, Slavic, Gothic, Ethiopic, Coptic, and Armenian.
In order for the Bible to have been corrupted all of these manuscripts which were distributed all over the world would have to be collected, and then they would have to physically change these manuscripts. If something had occurred we would have been able to detect any manuscripts tampering such as insertions, overwriting, erasers such as we find when it comes to the Quranic manuscripts.
If Muslims want to say that the Gospel was lost then when was it lost, did Muhammad have the real Bible with him when this ayat was revealed? If he did then how about all the manuscript evidence we have before Muhammad came that was distributed all over? If the Bible was changed before Muhammad then this would prove he’s a false prophet because he’s directing people to a “corrupt book” as Muslims claim.